@Cirrus Light
Also I don’t comprehend how (mc2)/((1-v2^/c2)(1/2)) - mc2^ = mc2(γ-1) because I’m sure that mc2((1/(γ))-1) would be the answer, otherwise I’m missing out something on the distributive law.
The reason for that is because γ = 1/sqrt(1-v2/c2). So then
@SirLogarithm
Ah, here we go! I think this is the same method? Ahck, I need to sleep, so I won’t double-check it against this image, but it’s a cool way to derive it nonetheless.
I’m baffled as to how most of this was derived, though some aspects I understand.
I don’t comprehend how you go from an equation to find work under conditions of varying force to the equation ʃ(madx)/(1-V2/c2)(3/2)) (x1 to x2).
Also I don’t comprehend how (mc2)/((1-v2/c2)(1/2)) - mc2 = mc2(γ-1) because I’m sure that mc2((1/(γ))-1) would be the answer, otherwise I’m missing out something on the distributive law.
Ah, for a sec, I was going to correct how she seemed to have put the graph of the Lorentz Factor as crossing the origin; and I was gonna be like; “Deerpy, why’d you put that gamma equals zero when velocity is zero? Its minimum value is one!” but now I see it’s slightly above the x-axis.
:P
But how did we go from W = ʃFdx (x1 to x2) to = ʃ(madx)/(1-V2/c2)(3/2)) (x1 to x2)?
I mean, my question is why did we multiply by the square of the lorentz factor?
That, and how did we get to E2 = (mc^2)^2 + (pc)2 from the previous step?
I missed class the day they did the e = mc2 lecture. Knowing that makes me feel a little like crying sometimes :<
(mc2)/((1-v2/c2)(1/2)) - mc2
=(mc2)·(1/((1-v2/c2)(1/2)) - 1)
=(mc2)·(γ-1)
:)
Edited
Ah, here we go! I think this is the same method? Ahck, I need to sleep, so I won’t double-check it against this image, but it’s a cool way to derive it nonetheless.
linky-link
Decided to do some reading on it. That might be one way to get it, but it’s not the way Einstein first did.
When it doubt, wiki :P
That article has more on it, too. I’ll poke more through it later. It’s late, now :q
I’m baffled as to how most of this was derived, though some aspects I understand.
I don’t comprehend how you go from an equation to find work under conditions of varying force to the equation ʃ(madx)/(1-V2/c2)(3/2)) (x1 to x2).
Also I don’t comprehend how (mc2)/((1-v2/c2)(1/2)) - mc2 = mc2(γ-1) because I’m sure that mc2((1/(γ))-1) would be the answer, otherwise I’m missing out something on the distributive law.
:P
But how did we go from W = ʃFdx (x1 to x2) to = ʃ(madx)/(1-V2/c2)(3/2)) (x1 to x2)?
I mean, my question is why did we multiply by the square of the lorentz factor?
That, and how did we get to E2 = (mc^2)^2 + (pc)2 from the previous step?
I missed class the day they did the e = mc2 lecture. Knowing that makes me feel a little like crying sometimes :<
Also, you get a muffin.